5412zl

[hsiehj]

I have couple questions about 5412zl w/ premium edge license, since I don't have much experience with ProCurve
- I have 2 5412zl, how does the vlan database pass from sw1 to sw2? or I have to configure vlan database on both?
- static route is configured on sw1, how to configure sw2 as a L2 switch with vlans?

[Jeff Carrell]

1) each switch generally needs to have all vlans separately configured on each...however, there is a feature (GVRP) where you configure the vlans on sw1, and the vlans can propagate to sw2, but you still have to put device ports into each vlan regardless.....so i personally prefer to always statically configure my vlans on all switches...

2) if you don't enable routing (ip routing) then the 5412 is only layer2 switching...if sw1 has routing on, and each vlan has an ip addr, and you have static routes, then it is the router for the network...

hth...jeff

[hsiehj]

Jeff,

Thanks for reply.

Just to clarify:
- Once GVRP is enabled, I can remove all the vlan configuration on sw2, correct? VLAN assignment on each port is already configured on sw2 so I probably don't need to worry about it.
- Assume GVRP is enabled, by disable ip routing on sw2 then vlan routing will be done by sw1, correct?

Once again, thanks for your help.

--Jerry

[Jeff Carrell · Accepted solution]

Just to clarify:

- Once GVRP is enabled, I can remove all the vlan configuration on sw2, correct? VLAN assignment on each port is already configured on sw2 so I probably don't need to worry about it.

well, not really...if you remove the vlan2 config, the ports that are in vlan2 will go back into vlan1...

at this point, if vlan2 is configured, best to just leave it there...

but if sw2 has an ip addr on vlan2, you will not need that as sw1-vlan2 ip addr will be the def g/w for all of vlan2...

gvrp really only helps to get vlan id's to switches - automatically, but you still have to configure the device ports for the vlans on each switch, so i find gvrp to not be as much value for me...


- Assume GVRP is enabled, by disable ip routing on sw2 then vlan routing will be done by sw1, correct?

regardless of gvrp, if sw2 has vlan2, and the link port between sw1 & sw2 is tagged, and sw1-vlan2 has an ip addr, and ip routing is enabled on sw1, then yes - sw1 does all the routing between the vlans...

does this clarify a bit?